The SSC GD Constable 2026 recruitment — conducted by the Staff Selection Commission (SSC) for 25,487 vacancies across BSF, CISF, CRPF, SSB, ITBP, Assam Rifles, SSF (Secretariat Security Force), and NCB (Narcotics Control Bureau) — is one of the most competitive and largest government recruitment exercises in India.
With the Computer Based Examination (CBE) starting from February 23, 2026 in multiple phases, and candidates spread across every state in India, understanding the exact exam pattern — not just the syllabus but the structure, marking scheme, negative marking formula, PET/PST standards, and final merit logic — is the difference between a focused preparation and a scattered one.

What most candidates do not know: the CBE is only Stage 1 of a five-stage selection process. Clearing the written exam is necessary but not sufficient — physical standards, medical fitness, and document verification each eliminate candidates at their respective stages. This guide covers every stage in detail.
SSC GD Constable 2026 – Recruitment Overview
| Parameter | Details |
|---|---|
| Conducting Body | Staff Selection Commission (SSC) |
| Post | Constable (General Duty) |
| Forces | BSF, CISF, CRPF, SSB, ITBP, Assam Rifles, SSF, NCB |
| Total Vacancies | 25,487 |
| Minimum Qualification | Class 10 pass (Matric) from a recognised board |
| Age Limit | 18–23 years (with category-wise relaxation) |
| CBE Start Date | February 23, 2026 |
| Official Website | ssc.gov.in |
Complete Selection Process – All Five Stages
| Stage | Name | Nature | Eliminates? |
|---|---|---|---|
| Stage 1 | Computer Based Examination (CBE) | Merit-forming | Yes — merit shortlisting |
| Stage 2 | Physical Efficiency Test (PET) | Qualifying | Yes — pass/fail |
| Stage 3 | Physical Standard Test (PST) | Qualifying | Yes — pass/fail |
| Stage 4 | Medical Examination (DME + RME) | Qualifying | Yes — pass/fail |
| Stage 5 | Document Verification (DV) | Qualifying | Yes — eligibility check |
Critical rule: The final merit list uses only CBE marks. PET, PST, Medical, and DV are qualifying stages — they determine whether you are eligible for selection, but they do not contribute marks to your rank. A top CBE scorer who fails PST is eliminated; a lower CBE scorer who passes all physical stages gets selected over someone with a higher CBE score who failed PST.
Stage 1: Computer Based Examination (CBE) – Complete Pattern
The CBE is an online, objective MCQ-based exam with four sections:
| Section | Questions | Marks | Time |
|---|---|---|---|
| General Intelligence & Reasoning | 20 | 40 | — |
| General Knowledge & General Awareness | 20 | 40 | — |
| Elementary Mathematics | 20 | 40 | — |
| English / Hindi | 20 | 40 | — |
| Total | 80 | 160 | 60 Minutes |
Key CBE Rules
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Marking scheme: Each correct answer awards +2 marks — questions are worth 2 marks each (not 1 mark).
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Negative marking: 0.50 marks (half mark) deducted per wrong answer — equivalent to 1/4 of the 2-mark question value.
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Duration: 60 minutes — 80 questions in 60 minutes means an average of 45 seconds per question.
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PwD candidates: 80 minutes (20 additional minutes).
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Mode: Computer Based — online at designated CBT centres.
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Medium: English or Hindi — bilingual for GK, Reasoning, and Maths; Language section tested in chosen language only.
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Normalisation: Applied across multiple shifts using a standard statistical method.
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No sectional time limit — candidates can attempt sections in any order.
Shortlisting for PET/PST
After CBE, SSC shortlists candidates for PET/PST in the following ratio:
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10 times the number of vacancies for each force, category-wise, in order of CBE merit.
This means if BSF has 100 General category vacancies, the top 1,000 General category CBE scorers are called for PET/PST for that force.
CBE Section-wise Syllabus
Section 1: General Intelligence & Reasoning (20 Questions, 40 Marks)
| Topic | Expected Questions |
|---|---|
| Analogies (verbal + non-verbal) | 3–4 |
| Number/Letter Series | 2–3 |
| Coding-Decoding | 2–3 |
| Blood Relations | 1–2 |
| Direction Sense | 1–2 |
| Odd One Out / Classification | 2–3 |
| Venn Diagrams | 1–2 |
| Mathematical Operations | 1–2 |
| Syllogism | 1–2 |
| Mirror Image / Non-verbal | 2–3 |
| Statement and Conclusion | 1 |
Section 2: General Knowledge & General Awareness (20 Questions, 40 Marks)
| Topic | Expected Questions |
|---|---|
| Current Affairs (last 6–8 months) | 5–7 |
| History of India | 2–3 |
| Geography | 2–3 |
| Indian Polity & Constitution | 2–3 |
| Economics (basic) | 1–2 |
| General Science | 3–4 |
| Awards, Sports, Important Days | 1–2 |
Current Affairs from the last 6–8 months carries the highest individual topic count in GK — 5–7 questions consistently appear from recent national and international events, government scheme launches, sports championships, and awards.
Section 3: Elementary Mathematics (20 Questions, 40 Marks)
| Topic | Expected Questions |
|---|---|
| Number System (LCM, HCF, fractions) | 1–2 |
| Percentage | 2–3 |
| Ratio and Proportion | 1–2 |
| Average | 1–2 |
| Profit and Loss | 2–3 |
| Simple Interest / Compound Interest | 1–2 |
| Time and Work | 1–2 |
| Time, Speed and Distance | 1–2 |
| Mensuration (2D and 3D) | 1–2 |
| Algebra (basic) | 1–2 |
| Statistics (mean, median, mode) | 1 |
All Mathematics questions are at Class 8–10 level — no advanced mathematics. NCERT Class 8, 9, and 10 Mathematics textbooks cover the complete Elementary Maths syllabus.
Section 4: English / Hindi (20 Questions, 40 Marks)
Candidates choose either English or Hindi at the application stage — they cannot change this preference after application submission.
English topics:
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Reading Comprehension.
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Error Spotting (grammar).
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Fill in the Blanks.
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Synonyms and Antonyms.
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One Word Substitution.
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Idioms and Phrases.
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Sentence Correction.
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Spelling Correction.
Hindi topics (हिन्दी भाषा):
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गद्यांश पठन बोध (Reading Comprehension).
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रिक्त स्थान पूर्ति (Fill in the Blanks).
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वर्तनी शुद्धि (Spelling Correction).
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वाक्य शुद्धि (Sentence Correction).
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मुहावरे और लोकोक्तियाँ (Idioms and Proverbs).
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पर्यायवाची और विलोम (Synonyms and Antonyms).
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संधि और समास (Sandhi and Samas — basic).
Marking Scheme – Detailed Analysis
| Scenario | Marks |
|---|---|
| Correct answer | +2.00 |
| Wrong answer | −0.50 |
| Question not attempted | 0 |
| Maximum possible score | 160 (80 correct × 2) |
| Minimum score if all wrong | −40 (80 wrong × 0.50) |
Smart Attempt Strategy
With 0.50 negative marking on a 2-mark question, attempting a wrong answer costs you 2.50 marks net (you lose the +2 you would have gained plus 0.50 in deduction).
Break-even calculation: For every wrong answer, you need to compensate with one correct answer to stay at the same mark — because 1 correct (+2) and 1 wrong (−0.50) = net +1.50, not +2. This means random guessing without any knowledge still slightly costs you net marks over time.
Recommended strategy:
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Attempt all questions you are 60% or more confident about — the expected value is positive.
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Skip questions where you have absolutely no knowledge.
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Never leave a question blank if you can eliminate even one option — with 4 choices, eliminating 1 gives 33% probability, and the expected value is still slightly positive given +2 reward vs −0.50 penalty.
Stage 2: Physical Efficiency Test (PET)
PET tests cardiovascular fitness and endurance — qualifying only, no marks added to CBE score:
| Event | Male Standard | Female Standard |
|---|---|---|
| Running | 5 km in 24 minutes | 1.6 km in 8.5 minutes |
PET failure is the most common post-CBE elimination point — candidates who scored well in CBE but neglected physical training during preparation are eliminated here. The 5 km run in 24 minutes (male) requires a consistent pace of approximately 4 minutes 48 seconds per km — achievable only with 3–4 months of progressive running training.
PwD Candidates: Ex-Servicemen and specific PwD categories may be exempt from PET — check the official SSC GD notification for the current cycle’s exemption list.
Stage 3: Physical Standard Test (PST)
PST measures height, weight, and chest — qualifying only:
| Measurement | Male General/OBC/SC | Male ST | Female General/OBC/SC | Female ST |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Height | 170 cm | 162.5 cm | 157 cm | 150 cm |
| Chest (unexpanded) | 80 cm | 77 cm | N/A | N/A |
| Chest (expanded) | 85 cm | 82 cm | N/A | N/A |
| Weight | Proportionate to height | Same | Proportionate | Same |
Force-specific relaxations: Some forces (CISF, Assam Rifles) offer height relaxation for candidates from specific hill and tribal areas — typically 5 cm relaxation. Verify force-wise relaxations from the official SSC GD notification.
PST measurement is final — height is a fixed biological characteristic and cannot be “re-measured” at appeal. Candidates who do not meet the minimum height standard are eliminated at PST and cannot participate in PET or subsequent stages.
Stage 4: Medical Examination (DME + RME)
Candidates who clear PET and PST appear for the Detailed Medical Examination (DME) at designated government hospitals:
| Parameter | Medical Standard |
|---|---|
| Distant Vision | 6/6 (better eye), 6/9 (worse eye) — without glasses for most forces |
| Near Vision | Sn 0.6 (better eye), Sn 0.8 (worse eye) |
| Colour Vision | Full colour perception — no colour blindness |
| Hearing | Normal in both ears |
| Orthopaedic | No flat feet (pes planus), knock knee, varicose veins |
| Respiratory | No asthma, chronic bronchitis, tuberculosis |
| Dental | Functional teeth sufficient for duty |
| Systemic | No disqualifying cardiac, neurological, or chronic endocrine condition |
Review Medical Examination (RME): If a candidate believes the DME result is incorrect, they may request an RME within the stipulated period. The RME is conducted by a different medical board — the RME result is final and cannot be further appealed.
Vision note: Candidates who wear glasses or contact lenses are typically disqualified for GD Constable posts in paramilitary forces. LASIK surgery is permitted for some forces but requires a minimum waiting period (typically 1–2 years post-surgery with no complications) — verify from the specific notification.
Stage 5: Document Verification (DV)
After successful Medical Examination, candidates attend DV in CBE merit order:
Documents required:
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Class 10 certificate and marksheet — educational qualification and age proof.
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Caste certificate (SC/ST/OBC NCL) — central government format (not state format), current financial year for OBC NCL.
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EWS certificate — current financial year, competent authority issued.
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Domicile/Residence certificate (state-specific as applicable).
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Aadhaar Card (original).
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Character certificate.
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NOC from current government employer (if applicable).
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Ex-Serviceman discharge certificate (if applicable).
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PwD certificate (if applicable).
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Passport-size photographs (6–8 copies, same as application photo).
Top DV rejection reasons:
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OBC NCL certificate in state government format instead of central government format — the most common rejection cause.
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Expired OBC NCL certificate (older than one financial year).
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Name mismatch between application form and educational certificates.
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Missing NOC from current government employer.
Force-wise Vacancy Distribution (SSC GD 2026)
| Force | Vacancies (Approx.) |
|---|---|
| BSF (Border Security Force) | ~10,000+ |
| CISF (Central Industrial Security Force) | ~5,000+ |
| CRPF (Central Reserve Police Force) | ~4,000+ |
| SSB (Sashastra Seema Bal) | ~3,000+ |
| ITBP (Indo-Tibetan Border Police) | ~1,500+ |
| Assam Rifles | ~1,000+ |
| SSF (Secretariat Security Force) | Limited |
| NCB (Narcotics Control Bureau) | Limited |
| Total | 25,487 |
Age Relaxation Rules
| Category | Relaxation Over Upper Limit (23 years) |
|---|---|
| OBC | 3 years (upper limit: 26 years) |
| SC/ST | 5 years (upper limit: 28 years) |
| Ex-Servicemen (General) | 3 years + actual service |
| Ex-Servicemen (OBC) | 6 years + actual service |
| Ex-Servicemen (SC/ST) | 8 years + actual service |
Expected Cut-offs – SSC GD CBE 2026
Based on previous year CBE cut-off trends (SSC GD 2021 and 2023):
| Category | Expected Cut-off (out of 160) |
|---|---|
| General / Unreserved | 120–135 |
| OBC | 110–125 |
| SC | 100–115 |
| ST | 90–105 |
| EWS | 115–130 |
These are directional estimates — actual cut-offs depend on the number of vacancies, exam difficulty, and the number of candidates per category in the 2026 cycle.
4-Month Preparation Strategy
Month 1: Foundation Building
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Static GK from Lucent’s General Knowledge (History, Geography, Polity, Science chapters).
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Begin Current Affairs: daily newspaper reading or monthly CA magazine.
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NCERT Class 8–10 Maths — Percentage, Profit & Loss, SI/CI, Ratio & Proportion, Average.
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Begin physical training: 2 km daily run, building progressively.
Month 2: Syllabus Completion
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Reasoning: R.S. Aggarwal Verbal & Non-Verbal Reasoning — Analogy, Series, Coding, Blood Relations, Non-verbal.
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English/Hindi: Grammar basics + daily one comprehension passage.
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Maths: Complete remaining topics (Time & Work, Speed-Distance, Mensuration, DI).
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Physical training: Increase to 3 km daily; add interval running for speed.
Month 3: Section-wise Practice
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Daily: 20 GK questions, 20 Reasoning questions, 20 Maths questions, 20 Language questions.
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Weekly: 2 section-wise mock tests per subject.
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Physical training: 5 km continuous run 3 times per week.
Month 4: Full Papers + Final Preparation
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Daily: 1 full 80-question CBE mock test — strict 60-minute time limit.
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Negative marking discipline: Track wrong attempts per session and reduce them week-on-week.
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Physical training: 5 km in under 25 minutes consistently before the PET date.
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Final 2 weeks: Revise Current Affairs and static GK notes only — no new topics.
FAQs
Q. How many questions are in SSC GD CBE 2026 and what is the total marks?
The CBE has 80 questions worth 160 marks — each correct answer awards 2 marks. Duration is 60 minutes. Wrong answers carry a −0.50 mark penalty.
Q. Is the SSC GD CBE negative marking 0.25 or 0.50?
−0.50 marks (half mark) per wrong answer. Since each question carries 2 marks, this is equivalent to a 1/4 (25%) penalty on question value — same proportional structure as SSC CGL’s 0.25 marking on 1-mark questions.
Q. Does PET score add to the final merit list in SSC GD 2026?
No. PET is purely qualifying — pass or fail. The final merit list is based entirely on CBE marks. Only CBE score determines your selection rank.
Q. What is the height requirement for SSC GD Constable female candidates?
Female candidates from General/OBC/SC categories require a minimum height of 157 cm. Female ST candidates require 150 cm minimum.
Q. Can I apply for multiple forces in SSC GD?
Yes. Candidates indicate force preferences at the application stage. SSC allocates candidates to forces based on CBE merit and force-wise vacancy availability, following the preference order submitted.
Q. What is the qualification required for SSC GD Constable 2026?
Class 10 pass (Matric) from a recognised board. No Class 12, graduation, or ITI is required. Appearing candidates (those who have not yet received their Class 10 result) are also eligible to apply.
Q. What vision standard is required for SSC GD medical examination?
Distant vision: 6/6 in better eye and 6/9 in worse eye — without corrective glasses or contact lenses for most paramilitary forces. Colour vision deficiency is a disqualifying condition for GD Constable posts.
Q. When will SSC GD Constable 2026 PET/PST be conducted?
PET/PST dates are announced after CBE results are declared. Based on previous cycles, PET/PST is typically held 3–4 months after CBE results. Start physical training now — do not wait for the CBE result.
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